Is it just that simple?
The winner of the first copy can't win any of the rest, so chance should be better the more the copies.
Is that already contemplated with a simple division? I can't figure it out.
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Pobability is generally the result you're looking for divided by all the results.
You want to roll a dice and get a 6. The dice have 6 sides, but only one is good for you: so probability of that is 1 divided by 6, 1/6.
If 1 and 2 are the numbers you want to get, that means that 2 results are good for you out of the 6, so the probability is 2 / 6
With the giveaway, there is 10k copies, and any of them is good for you, as you just want to win one. The chance of YOU winning out of the 10.060 people is 1 (as YOU, as one person, want to win) out of 10.060. But as there is 10k copies, basically you multiply this by 10.000, as each of the copies get to a random person, and you have 1/10060 chance for winning each piece:
For giveaways in short: it's (copies) / (entries)
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Wow, thanks for the quick and educational responses, fellas. I knew 1 in 60 couldn't be right, but I couldn't figure out why.
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Since I haven't got an answer elsewhere, another dumb question: What's a guib? I've heard others mention it, but not in a context I completely understand (except for when it is said that there are no guibs in the post...)
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It's referring to "giveaways". They are sometimes called "gibs" here :)
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you roll a dice with 10600 faces 10000 times hoping to get face x once
http://www.madandmoonly.com/doctormatt/mathematics/dice1.pdf
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If there are 10,000 copies being given away, and there are 10,060 entries, including me, does that mean I have a 1 in 60 chance of winning?
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